[Old Pedant]

Nope, I think you have it right.

Though doing it like this *MIGHT* be more efficient:

SELECT T1.*
FROM table AS T1,
     ( SELECT column, COUNT(column) AS cnt
       FROM table 
       GROUP BY column
       HAVING cnt > 1
    ) AS T2
WHERE T1.column = T2.column
ORDER BY T1.column

Or even possibly (though I doubt it)

SELECT T1.*
FROM table AS T1,
     ( SELECT column, COUNT(column) AS cnt
       FROM table 
       GROUP BY column
    ) AS T2
WHERE T1.column = T2.column AND T2.cnt > 1
ORDER BY T1.column

May not matter, but you could try it.