mlse
07-10-2005, 06:17 PM
Hi.
I have a query regarding virtual private networks. I have a broadband router with a public IP address. On the private side, my router is also a DHCP server, serving up local IP addresses of the form XXX.XXX.XXX.1, 2, 3, etc, (i.e. with a netmask of 255 255 255 0).
When I request a web-page, for example, the outgoing HTTP request will, I assume, have my router's public IP address in the header. When the server sends the response to that IP address, how does the router then know which of my machines to pass the response to?
For example; say I want to write a server application that will run behind the router (like one of these programs messenger, for example), how does the IP mapping work there?
Cheers,
Mike.
I have a query regarding virtual private networks. I have a broadband router with a public IP address. On the private side, my router is also a DHCP server, serving up local IP addresses of the form XXX.XXX.XXX.1, 2, 3, etc, (i.e. with a netmask of 255 255 255 0).
When I request a web-page, for example, the outgoing HTTP request will, I assume, have my router's public IP address in the header. When the server sends the response to that IP address, how does the router then know which of my machines to pass the response to?
For example; say I want to write a server application that will run behind the router (like one of these programs messenger, for example), how does the IP mapping work there?
Cheers,
Mike.