bazz
02-24-2009, 12:38 AM
Hi,
in phpMyAdmin, I have created a table with a foreign key, which references a pk from another table in another db, on the same server.
It didn't error and the table was created so I wonder does that prove that a fk can ref a pk in another db?
I have read loads online about it - a mixture of yes you can do it to no you can't. no clarity on which mysql they speak of but they say even oracle can;t do it.
bazz
in phpMyAdmin, I have created a table with a foreign key, which references a pk from another table in another db, on the same server.
It didn't error and the table was created so I wonder does that prove that a fk can ref a pk in another db?
I have read loads online about it - a mixture of yes you can do it to no you can't. no clarity on which mysql they speak of but they say even oracle can;t do it.
bazz